The examples of MCQ on section: "Special Bacteriology" for students of Medical faculty
The PATHOGENIC COCCI, ANAEROBES and SPIROCHETES. The CAUSATIVE AGENTS of ZOONOSES. CLINICAL MICROBIOLOGY
Task. Choose the appropriate answer:
|
A |
if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct |
|
B |
if only 1 and 3 are correct |
|
C |
if only 2 and 4 are correct |
|
D |
if only 4 is correct |
|
E |
if all are correct |
1. Which of the following statements can characterize the cultural properties of Bacillus anthracis?
1. They are aerobes
2. They form big colonies resembling a lion head
3. They are cultured on a simple culture media
4. They do not cause hemolysis on blood agar
2. Which of the following are the peculiarities of Staphylococcus aureus? They
1. are facultative anaerobes
2. can be cultured on egg-yolk salt agar
3. may cause hemolysis on blood agar
4. are gram-positive cocci
3. The phenomenon of the uncompleted phagocytosis is typical to which of the following pathogens:
1. C. botulinum
2. N. meningitidis
3. C. tetani
4. N. gonorrhoeae
4. Which of the following statements can characterize the cultural properties of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
1. They are capnophiles
2. They require human native proteins for growth
3. They are fastidious bacteria
4. They can be cultured in the candle jar
5. Which of the following are the proper conditions for strict anaerobes culturing?
1. Using specialized oxygen-free transport media
2. Processing the specimen in oxygen-free atmosphere
3. Using anaerobic jar for culturing
4. Keeping seeds in the 370C incubator
6. Streptococcus pyogenes may take part in the development of which of the following diseases:
1. Endocarditis
2. Scarlet fever
3. Glomerulonephritis
4. Sepsis
7. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose chronic gonorrhea?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Skin allergic test
3. Biological examination
4. Serological examination
8. Which of the following are the main features of Streptococcus pneumoniae? They are
1. gram-positive
2. encapsulated bacteria
3. lancet-shaped diplococci
4. bean-shaped cocci
9. Which of the following apply to the virulence factors of Clostridium perfringens?
1. Collagenase
2. Exotoxin
3. Lecithinase
4. α-toxin
10. Which of the following statements characterize the IHA-test used for identifying botulinum exotoxin serotype?
1. It is used to detect the unknown antigen
2. It is a slide agglutination test
3. The erythrocytic antibody-containing diagnosticums are utilized
4. It helps to determine the antibodies titer in a patient’s serum
11. The drugs and medical immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for treatment and immunoprophylaxis of botulism include:
1. Pentatoxoid
2. Polyvalent antitoxic antiserum ABE
3. Hexatoxoid
4. Antibiotics
12. Which of the following are the possible virulence factors of staphylococci?
1. β-hemolysin
2. Plasmocoagulase
3. Lecithinase
4. TSST-1
13. Which of the following specimens can be examined for making microbiological diagnosis of botulism?
1. Leftover foods
2. Vomit specimen
3. Gastric lavage waters
4. Sputum
14. Which of the following specimens can be examined for making microbiological diagnosis of botulism?
1. Leftover foods
2. Vomit specimen
3. Gastric lavage waters
4. Wound exudate
15. Which of the following bacteria belong to the non-endospore-forming anaerobes?
1. Veillonella sp.
2. Clostridium sp.
3. Peptostreptococcus sp.
4. Neisseria sp.
16. Vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of which of the following diseases:
1. Tetanus
2. Meningococcal infection
3. Botulism
4. Gonorrhea
17. The medical immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for treatment and immunoprophylaxis of botulism include:
1. Tetravalent toxoid
2. Pentatoxoid
3. Hexatoxoid
4. Polyvalent antitoxic antiserum ABE
18. The drugs and medical immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for treatment and immunoprophylaxis of staphylococcal disease include:
1. DPT-vaccine
2. Bacteriophage
3. Hexatoxoid
4. Killed vaccine
19. Which of the following specimens can be examined for making microbiological diagnosis of brucellosis?
1. Urine
2. Bone marrow aspirates
3. Blood
4. Cerebrospinal fluid
20. Which of the following statements can describe the tetanus toxin action?
1. It inhibits the release of inhibitory transmitters in synapses
2. It causes hyperstimulation of intestinal adenylate cyclase
3. It causes muscle spasms
4. It blocks the release of acetylcholine in synapses
21. Which of the following statements can characterize anthrax?
1. The fecal-oral route of transmission may occur
2. The wool, hide and meat of animals may act as a vehicle of transmission
3. It can be acquired via respiratory route
4. It is a flea-borne disease
22. Which of the following bacteria belong to spirochetes group?
1. Leptospira interrogans
2. Borrelia recurrentis
3. Treponema pallidum
4. Borrelia duttoni
23. Which of the following serological tests belong to the group of specific “treponemal tests”?
1. IF
2. RPR (Rapid Plasma regain)
3. TPI (T. pallidum immobilization test)
4. PCR
24. Which of the following reagents are utilized in VDRL test?
1. Erythrocytic diagnosticum
2. Cardiolipin antigen
3. Complement
4. Patient’s serum
25. Which of the following are the routes and modes of syphilis transmission?
1. Contact route
2. Passing through placenta
3. Unprotected sexual intercourse
4. Air-borne transmission
26. Which of the following statements can describe the peculiarities of Treponema pallidum?
1. It is a cork-screw bacterium
2. It can form cysts
3. It is a gram-negative
4. It moves by cilia
27. Which of the following methods can be used for tularemia diagnosing?
1. Serological examination
2. Skin allergic test
3. Biological examination
4. Rapid tests (IF, PCR)
28. Which of the following apply to the virulence factors of Clostridium perfringens?
1. Collagenase
2. Exotoxin
3. Lecithinase
4. α-toxin
29. Which of the following bacteria are the causative agents of brucellosis?
1. B. melitensis
2. B. suis
3. B. abortus
4. B. anthracis
30. Which of the following statements can characterize the botulinum toxin type A?
1. It is an exotoxin
2. It is neutralized by antitoxin type ABE
3. It is a protein
4. It is neutralized by antitoxin type A
31. Which of the following tests can be used for rapid detection of Clostridium perfringens?
1. Clotting of the sterile milk
2. Gas-liquid chromatography
3. Stormy fermentation in the chopped meat medium
4. PCR
32. Which of the following are the possible virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus?
1. Lecithinase
2. Hemolysin
3. Plasmocoagulase
4. Tetanolysin
33. Which of the following pathogens or their toxins can affect the central nervous system?
1. C. botulinum
2. C. perfringens
3. C. tetani
4. N. meningitidis
34. Which of the following specimens can be collected from males and females for making microbiological diagnosis of gonorrhea?
1. Pharyngeal swab
2. Cervical swab
3. Rectal swab
4. Urethral swab
35. Which of the following diseases can be caused by Neisseria meningitidis?
1. Meningitis
2. Nasopharyngitis
3. Sepsis
4. Scarlet fever
36. Which of the following virulence factors of Streptococcus pyogenes are responsible for scarlet fever development?
1. Streptolysin O
2. Streptolysin S
3. Streptokinase O
4. Erythrogenin
37. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose acute case of gonorrhea?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Serological examination (for antibodies detection)
3. Bacteriological examination
4. Biological examination
38. Which of the following statements can characterize the main features of the botulinum toxin?
1. It is an exotoxin
2. It can be neutralized by polyvalent antitoxic ABE antiserum
3. It is a neurotoxin
4. It can be used for making toxoid
39. Which of the following are the distinguishing features of Streptococcaceae family members? They
1. are gram-positive cocci
2. can cause hemolysis on blood agar
3. cannot grow on a simple media
4. may be encapsulated
40. Which of the following are the distinguishing features of Brucella sp.? They
1. are gram-negative rods
2. may require the presence of 5-10% CO2 in the atmosphere
3. can grow on enriched culture media only
4. are endospore-forming
41. Which of the following are the morphological and tinctorial properties of B. anthracis? They
1. are gram-positive rods
2. have capsule
3. form endospores
4. can be stained by Anjesky’s method
42. Which of the following are the main arthropod vectors of tularemia transmission?
1. Lice
2. Mosquitoes
3. Fleas
4. Ticks
43. Vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of which of the following diseases:
1. Tetanus
2. Gas gangrene
3. Botulism
4. Scarlet fever
44. Which of the following microbiological methods can be employed for pneumococcal infection diagnosing?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Biological examination
3. Bacteriological examination
4. Serological examination
45. Which of the following are the virulence factors of gas gangrene causative agents?
1. Lecithinase
2. Fibrinolysin
3. Collagenase
4. Tetanolysin
46. Which of the following statements characterize anthrax?
1. It is transmitted via contact route
2. It is a zoonosis
3. The cutaneous form may occur
4. It is a lice-borne disease
47. Which of the following bacteria are opportunistic pathogens?
1. Staphylococcus sp.
2. Pseudomonas sp.
3. Streptococcus sp.
4. Klebsiella sp.
48. Which of the following pathogens can cause sexually-transmitted diseases?
1. N. gonorrhoeae
2. B. recurrentis
3. T. pallidum
4. N. meningitidis
49. Which of the following are the main sources of infection in syphilis?
1. Patients with «secondary lesions»
2. Animals
3. Patients with hard chancre
4. Contaminated food
50. Which of the following tests belong to the group of specific “treponemal” serological tests?
1. Wassermann test
2. IF-test
3. VDRL
4. T. pallidum immobilization test (TPI)
51. Which of the following statements can describe the peculiarities of Leptospira interrogans?
1. It is a spiral bacterium
2. It has hooked ends
3. It is a gram-negative
4. It is endospore-forming
52. Which of the following pathogens belong to a group of spirochetes?
1. B. recurrentis
2. B.abortus
3. B.burgdorferi
4. B. melitensis
53. Which of the following statements characterize the IHA-test used for identifying botulinum exotoxin serotype?
1. The soluble antigen is identified
2. Red button is observed in a positive result
3. The erythrocytic antibody-containing diagnosticums are utilized
4. It is performed on a slide glass
54. The drugs and medical immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for treatment and immunoprophylaxis of tetanus include:
1. Toxoid
2. DPT-vaccine
3. Antitoxic antiserum
4. Antibiotics
55. Which of the following bacteria belong to the non-endospore-forming anaerobes?
1. Bacteroides sp.
2. Neisseria sp.
3. Fusobacterium sp.
4. Clostridium sp.
56. Which of the following specimens can be used for making microbiological diagnosis of gas gangrene?
1. Excised tissue
2. Wound exudate
3. Necrotized tissue
4. Dressing and bandage
57. Which of the following are the virulence factors of Bacillus anthracis?
1. endotoxin
2. hemolysin
3. endospores
4. exotoxin
58. Which of the following are the main features of the Staphylococcaceae family members? They are
1. gram-positive cocci
2. facultative anaerobes
3. easily cultured on simple culture media
4. catalase-positive
59. Which of the following statements can characterize the main peculiarities of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
1. They are gram-negative diplococci
2. They can cause a phenomenon of uncompleted phagocytosis
3. They are encapsulated
4. They are motile
60. Streptococcus pyogenes may take part in the development of which of the following diseases:
1. Scarlet fever
2. Endocarditis
3. Rheumatic fever
4. Erysipelas
61. Which of the following statements can characterize the cultural properties of Brucella sp.?
1. They may require the presence of 5-10% CO2 in the atmosphere
2. They can be cultured in the egg yolk sac of a chicken embryo
3. They can grow on enriched culture media only
4. They are gram-negative bacteria
62. Which of the following are the main peculiarities of S. pyogenes?
They are
1. gram-positive bacteria
2. β-hemolytic
3. cocci in chains
4. bean shaped diplococci
63. Which of the following statements characterize the peculiarities of anthrax transmission:
1. It is a lice-borne disease
2. Contaminated milk and meat products are vehicles of its transmission
3. Human-to-human transmission is very often
4. It is transmitted via leather and wool of infected animals
64. The bacteriological examination of pus in staphylococcal skin infection makes possible:
1. the identifying of a pathogen
2. the tracking down a source of infection
3. the determining the antibiogram
4. the determining the specific antibodies titer
65. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose gonorrhea?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Serological examination
3. Bacteriological examination
4. Skin allergic test
66. Which of the following are the distinguishing features of Streptococcus pneumoniae? They are
1. gram-positive
2. encapsulated bacteria
3. diplococci
4. cocci in long linear chains
67. Which of the following microbiological methods and tests can be used to diagnose pneumococcal infection?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Bacteriological examination
3. Biological examination
4. PCR
68. Vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of which of the following diseases?
1. Tetanus
2. Meningococcal meningitis
3. Botulism
4. Gonorrhea
69. Which of the following specimens can be examined for making tularemia microbiological diagnosis?
1. Conjunctival swab
2. Sputum
3. Blood
4. Blood serum
70. Which of the following statements characterize the mechanism of tetanus toxin action?
1. It blocks the release of inhibitory transmitters in synapses
2. It causes hyperstimulation of intestinal adenylate cyclase
3. It causes muscle spasms
4. It inhibits the protein synthesis
71. Which of the following are the virulence factors of Yersinia pestis?
1. V-antigen
2. F1-antigen
3. W-antigen
4. Endotoxin
72. Which of the following are the main peculiarities of S. aureus? They
1. are strict anaerobes
2. are gram-positive cocci
3. are catalase-negative
4. may produce yellowish pigment on MPA
73. Which of the following diseases are flea-borne infections?
1. Brucellosis
2. Tularemia
3. Anthrax
4. Plague
74. Which of the following bacteria belong to spirochetes group?
1. Leptospira interrogans
2. Treponema pallidum
3. Borrelia recurrentis
4. Bifidobacterium bifidum
75. Which of the following statements can describe the main features of Treponema pallidum?
1. It is a cork-screw bacterium
2. It moves by endoflagella
3. It is a gram-negative bacterium
4. It may form cysts
76. Which of the following reagents are utilized in Wassermann test (CF-test) used for serological diagnosis for syphilis?
1. Cardiolipin (lipoid) antigen
2. Complement
3. Specific treponemal antigen
4. Patient’s serum
77. Which of the following tests belong to the serological “non-treponemal” tests?
1. Wassermann test
2. T. pallidum immobilization test (TPI)
3. VDRL
4. PCR
78. Vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of which of the following diseases?
1. Epidemic relapsing fever
2. Brucellosis
3. Syphilis
4. Leptospirosis
79. Which of the following statements can characterize the botulinum exotoxin?
1. It causes flaccid paralysis
2. It is a soluble protein
3. It blocks the release of acetylcholine in synapses
4. It causes hypersecretion of water and electrolytes in the intestine
80. Which of the following microbiological methods and tests can be used to diagnose botulism?
1. Toxin-antitoxin neutralization test in mice
2. Serological examination (to detect an antigen)
3. IHA
4. Bacterioscopical examination
81. The drugs and immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for treatment and immunoprophylaxis of gas gangrene include:
1. Toxoid
2. Antibiotics
3. Antitoxic antiserum
4. Bacteriophages
82. Which of the following bacteria are the non-endospore-forming anaerobes?
1. Bacteroides sp.
2. Pophyromonas sp.
3. Fusobacterium sp.
4. Clostridium sp.
83. Which of the following are the tests used for making serological diagnosis of brucellosis?
1. IHA-test
2. Slide agglutination test (Huddleson’s test)
3. Coombs’ test
4. Serial dilution agglutination test (Wright’s test)
84. Which of the following are the main features of the members of the family Clostridiaceae? They are
1. gram-positive bacteria
2. anaerobes
3. rod-shaped
4. endospore-forming
85. Which of the following statements describe the main features of Streptococcus pyogenes?
1. They can cause β-hemolysis on the blood agar
2. They are gram-positive bacteria
3. They are cocci in chains
4. They are strict anaerobes
86. Which of the following are the virulence factors of S. aureus?
1. Hemolysin
2. Lecithinase
3. Plasmocoagulase
4. Exfoliathin
87. Which of the following statements characterize plague?
1. It is a zoonosis
2. The human-to-human transmission may occur
3. It is a flea-borne disease
4. It is caused by Yersinia enterocolitica
88. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose pneumococcal infection?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Bacteriological examination
3. Serological examination
4. Biological examination
89. Which of the following statements can characterize the botulinum exotoxin?
1. It causes flaccid paralysis
2. It is a protein
3. It blocks the release of acetylcholine in synapses
4. It can be neutralized by polyvalent ABE botulinum antitoxin
90. Which of the following statements describe the main features of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
1. They are coffee-bean-shaped diplococci
2. They are gram-negative
3. They are encapsulated
4. They can cause gonococcal conjunctivitis in neonates
91. Which of the following statements describe the main features of Francisella tularensis?
1. They are gram-negative bacteria
2. They can be cultured in the egg yolk sac of chicken embryo
3. They are fastidious bacteria
4. They are causative agents of brucellosis
92. Which of the following are the main features of B. anthracis?
They are
1. gram-positive rods
2. resistant to adverse conditions
3. endospore-forming
4. obligate intracellular parasites
93. Which of the following statements characterize tularemia?
1. It is a zoonosis
2. It is a tick-borne disease
3. It is transmitted via blood
4. The bubonic form of tularemia may occur
94. Vaccines can be employed for treatment of which of the following chronic diseases:
1. Staphylococcal infections
2. Brucellosis
3. Gonorrhea
4. Botulism
95. Which of the following microbiological methods and tests can be used to diagnose infections caused by non-endospore-forming anaerobes?
1. Gas-liquid chromatography
2. Bacteriological examination
3. Genetic tests
4. Biological examination
96. Which of the following specimens can be examined for making microbiological diagnosis of anthrax?
1. Exudate from carbuncle
2. Sputum
3. Blood
4. Feces
97. Which of the following statements characterize Brucella sp.?
1. They are gram-negative bacteria
2. Some brucellae require 5-10% CO2 atmosphere for growth
3. They are facultative intracellular parasites
4. Some species of brucellae can produce H2S
98. Which of the following bacteria are the causative agents of brucellosis?
1. B. melitensis
2. B. pertussis
3. B. abortus
4. B. recurrentis
99. Which of the following are the virulence factors of C. botulinum?
1. Tetanospasmin
2. Collagenase
3. Tetanolysin
4. Exotoxin
100. Which of the following statements characterize the main features of the members of the family Spirochetaceae?
1. They are gram-negative bacteria
2. They are coiled bacteria
3. They are motile bacteria
4. They have peritrichous flagella
101. Which of the following bacteria belong to spirochetes group?
1. Leptospira interrogans
2. Borrelia recurrentis
3. Treponema pallidum
4. Borrelia persica
102. Which of the following statements can describe the peculiarities of Leptospira interrogans?
1. It is a spiral bacterium
2. It has the cell with hooked ends
3. It is gram-negative
4. It is endospore-forming
103. Which of the following pathogens can cause sexually-transmitted diseases?
1. N. gonorrhoeae
2. N. meningitidis
3. T. pallidum
4. B. recurrentis
104. Which of the following tests belong to the group of non-specific “non-treponemal” serological tests?
1. Wassermann test
2. RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin test)
3. VDRL
4. IHA
105. Which of the following methods can be used for making microbiological diagnosis of staphylococcal acute purulent diseases?
1. Bacteriological examination
2. Serological examination
3. Bacterioscopical examination
4. Biological examination
106. Staphylococcus aureus may take part in the development of which of the following diseases:
1. Toxic shock syndrome
2. Sepsis
3. Scalded skin syndrome
4. Scarlet fever
107. Which of the following are the drugs of choice for treatment of anaerobic infections caused by non-clostridial anaerobes?
1. Toxoid
2. Clindamycin
3. Antitoxic antiserum
4. Metronidazole
108. Which of the following microbiological methods and tests make possible the detection of the botulinum exotoxin?
1. The IHA test
2. ELISA
3. The toxin-antitoxin neutralization test in mice
4. Serological examination (to detect an antigen)
109. Which of the following bacteria belong to the non-endospore-forming anaerobes?
1. Peptostreptococcus sp.
2. Bacteroides sp.
3. Propionibacterium sp.
4. Porphyromonas sp.
110. Which of the following pathogens can cause the genitourinary tract infections?
1. C. novyi
2. T. pallidum
3. N. meningitidis
4. N. gonorrhoeae
111. Which of the following statements can describe the peculiarities of Borrelia recurrentis?
1. It is a spiral bacterium
2. It can be demonstrated in a blood smear stained by Romanowsy-Giemsa method
3. It is a gram-negative
4. It is transmitted by ticks
112. Which of the following statements can characterize the peculiarities of the syphilis transmission?
1. Patient with «secondary lesions» is a source of infection
2. It is a sexually-transmitted disease
3. Patient with hard chancre is a source of infection
4. It is an air-borne disease
113. Which of the following are the virulence factors of Leptospira interrogans?
1. Fibrinolysin
2. Cytotoxin
3. Hemolysin
4. Endotoxin
114. Vaccines can be employed for treatment of which of the following chronic diseases:
1. Staphylococcal infections
2. Syphilis
3. Gonorrhea
4. Botulism
115. Which of the following are the distinguishing features of the members of the family Neisseriaceae? They are
1. gram-negative cocci
2. fastidious bacteria
3. coffee-bean shaped diplococci
4. oxidase-positive
116. Which of the following are the main cultural and biochemical features of Staphylococcus aureus? They
1. may produce yellowish pigment on MPA
2. are mannitol-positive
3. are facultative anaerobes
4. may cause hemolysis on blood agar
117. Which of the following statements can characterize tularemia causative agent?
1. It is a gram-negative bacterium
2. It is not easily cultured on artificial culture media
3. It may be transmitted via arthropod vector
4. It is called Francisella tularensis
118. Which of the following apply to the specimens used for diagnosing of staphylococcal diseases?
1. Blood
2. Pus
3. Sputum
4. Cerebrospinal fluid
119. Streptococcus pyogenes may take part in the development of which of the following diseases:
1. Tonsillitis
2. Erysipelas
3. Rheumatic heart disease
4. Septic endocarditis
120. Which of the following virulence factors of S. pyogenes are responsible for scarlet fever symptoms development?
1. Exfoliathin
2. α-hemolysin
3. Plasmocoagulase
4. Erythrogenin
121. Which of the following concern the cultural characteristics of Neisseria gonorrhoeae? They
5. are capnophiles
6. require native proteins for growth
7. are fastidious bacteria
8. are gram-negative diplococci
122. Which of the following are the peculiarities of S. pneumoniae?
They are
1. a gram-positive diplococci
2. α-hemolytic
3. the encapsulated bacteria
4. dissolved by bile (in the bile solubility test)
123. Which of the following bacteria are the non-endospore-forming anaerobes?
1. Fusobacterium sp.
2. Bacteroides sp.
3. Veillonella sp.
4. Bifidobaterium sp.
124. The drugs and immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for treatment and immunoprophylaxis of gas gangrene include:
1. Hexatoxoid
2. Antibiotics
3. Antitoxin
4. Probiotics
125. Which of the following statements characterize the cultural properties of Bacillus anthracis?
1. They are aerobes
2. They form a lion head-like colonies
3. They can grow on a simple culture media
4. They show phenomenon of pearl necklace on a penicillin-containing solid culture medium
126. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose gas gangrene?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Serological examination (for the toxin serotype identification)
3. Bacteriological examination
4. Gas-liquid chromatography
127. Which of the following statements apply to the peculiarities of Yersinia pestis?
1. They belong to the family Enterobacteriaceae
2. They are psychrophiles
3. They are gram-negative rods
4. They cannot grow on the artificial culture media
128. Which of the following are the virulence factors of B. anthracis?
1. Oedema factor
2. Protective antigen
3. Lethal factor
4. Hemolysin
129. The serological examination in tularemia makes possible:
1. to perform serotyping of the causative agent in a patient’s specimen
2. to register the acute infection
3. to detect the endotoxin of tularemia causative agent
4. to confirm the diagnosis
130. Vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of which of the following diseases?
1. Tetanus
2. Relapsing fever
3. Botulism
4. Scarlet fever
Match each of the following infections listed below with its causative agent:
|
131. Blennophthalmia (gonococcal ophthalmia of neonates) 132. Gonorrhea 133. Plague 134 Scarlet fever |
A. S. pneumoniae B. S. pyogenes C. S. aureus D. N. gonorrhoeae E. Y.pestis |
Match each of the following statements listed below with the appropriate medical immunobiological preparation:
|
135. It induces antitoxic immunity 136. It induces active immunity 137. It is a component of DPT vaccine 138. It can neutralize tetanus exotoxin 139. It can be given to a wounded patient for the immediate prophylaxis of gas gangrene |
A. Tetanus toxoid B. Tetanus antitoxin C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B |
Match each of the following infections listed below with its causative agent:
|
140. Scarlet fever 141. Gas gangrene 142. Post-streptococcal acute glomerulonephritis 143. Scalded skin syndrome
|
F. S. pneumoniae G. S. pyogenes C. C. histolyticumD. C. tetani E. S. aureus |
Match each of the following statements listed below with the appropriate pathogen:
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144. They are gram-positive cocci 145. They are α-hemolytic 146. They can show lecithinase activity on the egg-yolk salt agar 147. They are lancet-shaped diplococci 148. They can produce erythrogenic toxin |
A. S. pneumoniae B. S. pyogenes C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B |
Match each of the following infections listed below with its causative agent:
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149. Brucellosis 150. Tularemia 151. Anthrax 152. Plague
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A. B. melitensis B. Y. pestis C. B. anthracis D. F. tularensis E. Y. enterocolitica |
Match each of the following statements listed below with the appropriate pathogen:
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153. They are gram-positive bacteria 154. They have terminal endospores 155. They are strict anaerobes 156. They produce exotoxin 157. They can cause flaccid paralysis |
B. C. botulinum C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B |
Match each of the following infections listed below with its causative agent:
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158. Meningococcal meningitis 159. Pneumococcal meningitis 160. Pneumonic plaque 161. Pneumonic anthrax |
H. S. pneumoniae I. S. pyogenes C. N. meningitidisD. Y. pestis E. B. anthracis |
Match each of the following statements listed below with the appropriate pathogen:
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162. They are gram-positive cocci 163. They can cause β-hemolysis on blood agar 164. They possess protein A in a cell wall 165. They have protein M in a cell wall 166. They may produce erythrogenic toxin |
E. S. aureus F. S. pyogenes G. Both A and B H. Neither A nor B |
Match each of the following infections listed below with its causative agent:
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167. Tetanus 168. Botulism 169. Pseudomembranous colitis 170. Gas gangrene
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A. S. pyogenes B. C. tetani C. C. perfringens D. C. botulinum E. C. difficile |
Match each of the following statements listed below with the appropriate pathogen:
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171. They are coffee-bean-shaped diplococci 172. They are fastidious bacteria 173. They utilize maltose 174 They are oxidase-positive 175. They possess endotoxin |
I. N. meningitidis J. N. gonorrhoeae K. Both A and B L. Neither A nor B |
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CASE 1 A 6-month-old girl with staphylococcal impetigo (skin infection) is brought into the pediatric ward. The pus from the pustules is sent to the laboratory. Gram-positive clustered cocci arranged in a groups resembling bunches of grapes are observed by direct microscopic examination. Answer the following questions on CASE 1:
36. Which of the following microbiological methods should be used to prove the staphylococcal etiology of impetigo in a given patient? 1. Serological examination 2. Allergic skin test 3. Biological examination 4. Bacteriological examination
37. Which of the following culture media can be used for isolation and identification of the pure culture of staphylococci? 1. Egg-yolk salt agar 2. Mannitol Hiss’ medium 3. Blood agar 4. Alkaline agar
38. Which of the following tests can be performed to identify S. aureus? 1. Detection of lecithinase 2. Plasma coagulation test 3. Detection of β-hemolysis 4. Anaerobic fermentation of mannitol
39. Which of the following virulence factors may possess staphylococci? 1. Scalded skin syndrome toxin 2. Enterotoxin 3. Toxic shock syndrome toxin 4. Erythrogenic toxin
40. Which of the following infectious diseases can be caused by staphylococci? 1. Pneumonia 2. Tonsillitis 3. Sepsis 4. Scarlet fever |
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CASE 2 A young adult has come to the emergency room with complaints of fever, severe cough, and pain in the chest. The physician suspects pneumonia. Answer the following questions on CASE 2: 36. Which of the following bacteria can cause pneumonia? 1. S. pyogenes 2. K. pneumoniae 3. S. aureus 4. S. pneumoniae
37. Which of the following specimens can be taken from the patient described in the task? 1. Pleural fluid 2. Saliva 3. Sputum 4. Nasopharyngeal swabs
38. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose pneumonia in a patient? 1. Bacterioscopical examination 2. Serological examination 3. Bacteriological examination 4. Skin allergic test
39. The bacteriological examination of a specimen makes possible: 1. identifying a pathogen 2. detecting the antibodies to a pathogen 3. choosing the antibiotics for treatment 4. detecting the pathogen’s genome
40. Which of the following statements characterize the opportunistic pathogens? 1. They can constitute a human normal flora 2. They can cause the endogenous infection 3. They can cause the disease in immunocompromised patients 4. They can cause nosocomial infection |
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CASE 3 An 18-month-old child was brought to his general practitioner (GP) by his mother who said he was ‘not well’. The GP noted a temperature of 38oC, neck stiffness and a purpuric rash over the body. Acute bacterial meningitis was suspected. An urgent lumbar puncture was performed and 2 ml of purulent cerebrospinal fluid was sent to the laboratory. Gram-negative coffee-bean shaped cocci were detected microscopically. Answer the following questions on CASE 3: 36. Which of the following bacteria can be responsible for the development of cerebrospinal meningitis in such a patient? 1. C. tetani 2. N. gonorrhoeae 3. S. pyogenes 4. N. meningitidis
37. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose infection in a patient described in the task? 1. Bacterioscopical examination 2. Serological examination (for the antigen detection) 3. Bacteriological examination 4. Biological examination
38. Which of the following are the virulence factors of a pathogen? 1. Endotoxin 2. Pili 3. Capsule 4. Tetanospasmin
39. Which of the following vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis? 1. Monovalent meningococcal vaccine type A 2. Bivalent meningococcal vaccine type A and C 3. Monovalent meningococcal vaccine type C 4. Hexatoxoid
40. What other bacteria can also cause symptoms of cerebrospinal meningitis? 1. S. aureus 2. S. pyogenes 3. S. pneumoniae 4. N. gonorrhoeae |
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CASE 4 The 7 year-old Aaron was admitted to the local emergency room with trauma. He had fallen down from his bike and scraped himself. The tetanus toxoid was administered to the patient. Answer the following questions on CASE 4: 36. Which of the following virulence factors can synthesize the tetanus pathogen? 1. Endotoxin 2. Tetanolysin 3. Collagenase 4. Tetanospasmin
37. Which of the following statements can characterize the tetanus toxin? 1. It stops the release of inhibitory transmitters in synapses 2. It is a protein 3. It can cause seizures and hyperreflexia 4. It causes flaccid paralysis
38. Which of the following statements can characterize the tetanus toxoid? 1. It induces artificial active immunity 2. It stimulates antibacterial immunity 3. It is a component of DPT vaccine 4. It contains tetanus exotoxin
39. Which of the following statements explain the doctor’s tactic in the trauma management in the case in point? 1. The prescribing of the tetanus toxoid to the given patient is based on immunologic memory phenomenon 2. The “self” antibody production within short time is supposed 3. The booster injection of tetanus toxoid stimulates the production of patient’s own antibodies 4. The tetanus toxoid neutralizes the tetanus exotoxin
40. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose tetanus in a patient? 1. Bacterioscopical examination 2. Serological examination (for the toxin identification) 3. Bacteriological examination 4. Skin allergic test |
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CASE 5 A 26-year-old man came to physician with complaint of having purulent penile discharge. The acute case of gonorrhea was diagnosed based upon the finding of intracellular gram-negative coffee-bean-shaped diplococci in the pus taken from patient’s urethra. Answer the following questions on CASE 5: 1. Which of the following bacteria are possible causative agents of disease in the case described in the task? 1. S. pyogenes 2. N. meningitidis 3. S. pneuminiae 4. N. gonorrhoeae
2. Which of the following are the distinguishing features of such a pathogen described in the task? 1. They are fastidious bacteria 2. They are facultative intracellular parasites 3. They grow best in the presence of 5-10% CO2 in the atmosphere 4. They cannot grow on artificial culture media
3. What phenomenon was observed in stained smear in the case in point? 1. Phagotyping 2. Completed phagocytosis 3. Agglutination 4. Uncompleted phagocytosis
4. Which of the following microbiological methods can be employed for diagnosing infection in the case in point? 1. Bacterioscopical examination 2. Biological examination 3. Bacteriological examination 4. Skin allergic test
5. Which of the following specimens can be collected for making diagnosis of gonorrhea in males? 1. Urethral swab 2. Pharyngeal swab 3. Rectal swab 4. Cerebrospinal fluid |